Joint Intelligence (JI) CBT Practice Exam

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• In killbox terminology, which statement best describes HOT?
• What is the full name corresponding to the AOMSW acronym?
• Which CDM level is the casualty analysis level used when levels 1-4 do not generate a low CDE and aircrew will not strike at this level?
• CDE level 5 is used for what purpose?
• Which document includes CC guidance, PR procedures, strike approval authorities, ROEs, and collateral damage mitigation?
• What does AR stand for in this context?
• During PR msn planning the ____ acronym can be used to aid in ID'ing the tactical problem statement, shaping the force composition, and developing tactical execution COA
• Which target is a JFC-validated target or set of targets requiring immediate response because it is highly lucrative, fleeting TOO or it poses danger to friendly forces?
• Which term is used to refer to a predesignated location that IP uses for covert reporting?
• Which maritime mission detects targets and coordinates attack or reconnaissance of target subsets that include armed reconnaissance, air interdiction, and counter fast attack craft?
• In CAS who: -directs actions of combat aircraft -performs TAC authority to control/maneuver & grant wpn release clearance -coord/control ROZs over tgt area -work w/ supported CC to ensure PID -minimizes/mitigates CD -developed/pass 9 line -pass clearances
• Which term refers to executing deliberate offensive attacks?
• Which action completes BOT correlation?
• This brevity term is similar to ISR -find, PID/CID tgt, provide info that tgt complies w/ROE (not authorized to strike)
• Who normally determines PID/CDE for deliberate/scheduled targets (TGTs located on ATO) (Aircrew still need to correlate CID)
• Who will typically pass the situation update?
• What does BDA stand for in CAS?
• Collateral Damage Estimation is also known as what?
• FRA stands for First Run Attack
• Which maritime mission abbreviation stands for Surface Surveillance Coordination?
• In METT_T, what does the 'E' stand for?
• Which term refers to the process normally performed by trained personnel to characterize the level and extent of collateral damage risk for a command?
• In the composite warfare C2 structure, which entity sits at the top?
• Which set of items comprises the six Ts used in the dynamic targeting process?
• Which option best represents the statement: The standard format used to easily remember the parts of the situation update?
• What are geographical areas where high value targets can be acquired and engaged by friendly forces?
• Air operations conducted to divert, disrupt, delay, or destroy the enemy's military potential before it can be used against friendly forces, or to achieve objectives at such distances from friendly forces that detailed integration is not required?
• What are the required 9-line read backs?
• What should the SCAR consider when passing attack briefs?
• SMACK authority is inherent in a SCAR mission but may be restricted by ___
• Which brevity is used by CSAR A/C departing the LZ usually followed by a number?
• This type of CDE is typically used for dynamic targeting when there is a time-constrained opportunity to engage a target.
• Which attack is used when the JTAC determines that the desired effects can be achieved against the target with CAS aircraft employing ordnance on a specified set of coordinates (not required to tally/captured/contact)?
• Which LoW principle obligates parties to distinguish principally between the armed forces and civilian population and between unprotected and protected objects?
• Which term correctly represents 'ways to pass a tgt location to striker'?
• Who develops/pass the 9-line?
• Which term describes targets that are unknown or not expected to be present in the operational environment?
• What term denotes a radius representing the largest collateral hazard distance for a given weapon class, determined by acceptable collateral damage thresholds for each CDE level?
• Which publication provides information on the Law of War to DoD personnel responsible for implementing the LoW and conducting military operations?
• Which statement describes the Game plan in a CAS operation?
• Which is the primary control agency of the TACS for CAS execution?
• Which term describes the process of confirming the target or mark acquisition by the attacking aircraft or third-party contributor?
• Which CAS step represents the post-attack evaluation of damage?
• ____ are directives issued by combatant CCs that delineate the circumstances and limitations under which US forces will initiate and/or continue combat engagement with other forces encountered
• In general, authority for expenditure of weapons normally rests with which command level?
• Which role advises Ground Command on capabilities/limitations of air operations and provides tactical air control?
• Who is responsible for deconflicting all AR/AI assets in assigned airspace and coordinating engagement and assessment of targets to achieve mission objectives?
• Which CAS step involves correlating the target data with the attack plan?
• Which attack requires that the JTAC/FAC(A) intended target is tally/captured/contact by aircrew?
• Airborne AI attack aircraft dynamic targeting tasking usually comes in 1 of 3 brevity term forms.
• What term denotes a reasonable certainty that the object of attack is a legitimate military target in accordance with theater ROEs?
• Which killbox airspace status is established but aircraft are prohibited?
• Which clearance call corresponds to type 3 control?
• What does the acronym ATO stand for?
• Which term means the inherent right to defend oneself, subunits, and other US forces against hostile act or intent?
• In CAS who: -decides tgt priority -determines DWE -sets timing of supporting fires in Op area -authorizes ALL fires in op area
• What does AMM stand for in maritime warfare?
• Used for training only clearance to attack (simulated release)?
• Which term refers to unprotected and unauthorized members who directly participate in hostilities without the permission of their nation's military, and are subject to trial by military tribunals?
• What is the process normally performed by trained and certified personnel at various echelons?
• Which clearance indicates authorization to engage within defined restrictions for Type 3 control?
• What is the brevity term used when all requirements to strike a target have been satisfied?
• What are the two deliberate targeting types used in planning?
• CID is focused on what type of operations?
• Which term denotes a list of objects and entities explicitly protected from the effects of military operations?
• What does TIC stand for in JTAC terminology?
• Which term refers to known targets that were unplanned or not expected to be available for engagement within the current targeting cycle?
• Which statement best describes the difference between scheduled targets and on-call targets?
• What are locations where worthwhile potential targets are known or suspected to exist?
• Which document is a prioritized list of targets approved and maintained by the JFC?
• SPINS provide information not contained in the ATO, and may include guidance such as ROEs, comm plans, and strike procedures.
• What term refers to the 3D permissive FSCM with an associated ACM used to facilitate integration of joint fires and coordination of airspace, noting that the kill box is a measure rather than a mission?
• Which section of SPINS is intended to provide clarification and guidance concerning ROE implementation under JFC control?
• In joint operations planning, at what level is AI mission planning and scheduling typically performed during the joint targeting cycle and tasking of the ATO?
• In CAS, who is the aviation officer who exercises control of combat engaged aircraft?
• Which statement about HOT is true?
• The oceans, seas, bays, estuaries, islands, coastal areas, and the airspace above these, including the littorals define which domain?
• Which term refers to individuals who directly participate in hostilities but are not formal members of a nation's regular armed forces and are subject to military tribunals?
• Which groups are described as lawful combatants?
• Which type of kill box permits air-to-surface fires in the kill box without further coordination or deconfliction (Air Force)?
• Which brevity means the current survivor coords may include extra data and date-time stamp?
• When is correlation complete in a BOT attack?
• ROEs stands for which concept in military operations?
• Who can be prosecuted for violating the Law of War?
• Which term describes an aircraft capable of conducting AI, XAI, or AR?
• Deliberate targeting is primarily used for targets that are planned in advance. Through which process are AI missions redirected during execution to prosecute higher priority targets of opportunity?
• How should captured individuals be treated under the Law of War?
• In killbox terms, what does the fire status indicate when fires are permitted and effects are allowed without further coordination?
• TEFACHR is the standard format used to remember parts of the situation update. What type of brief is this?
• Who determines CDE for dynamic targets?
• 9-line is a standardized format used to request and coordinate air support. Which option reflects that correctly?
• Which type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) requires control of individual attacks but cannot visually acquire the aircraft or target?
• Which organization typically coordinates theater-level air operations and strategy?
• Which LoW principle forbids inflicting suffering, injury, or destruction unnecessary to accomplish a legitimate military purpose?
• Which acronym is used for abbreviated TIC updates that include Friendly, Artillery, Airspace, Threats, and Sensors?
• For which targets has the CDE already been accomplished during the approval process, so aircrews are not responsible for determining CDE?
• Which crown color indicates a carrier strike group?
• Targets are prosecuted using which engagement cycle?
• What does MCC stand for in this structure?
• Which wording correctly pairs a LoW principle with its meaning?
• Which term describes unintended physical damage to noncombatant persons, property, or environments during military operations?
• Does the CDM process account for collateral damage due to secondary explosions?
• What are the 3 methods of deconfliction?
• Where is CDE typically located?
• What term describes kill box airspace status where aircraft are permitted?
• CAS check in brief can be remembered using what mnemonic?
• What term describes the condition when friendly forces are within the weapon's impact area?
• The following are examples of what type of target: Mobile/maritime targets, Military leadership, Mobile long-range S/A SAMS, TBMs, SCUD w/possible WMD, Multiple rocket launchers, Mobile C2?
• How many warfare CCs are subordinate to the Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)?
• During CAS 9-line, how is the location of friendlies provided?
• Which provides coordination with JAOC, ASOC, DASC, AWACS, JSTARS?
• Which line-based format is used to pass target information to assets for engagement?
• Which LoW principle demands a certain amount of fairness in offense and defense and a certain mutual respect between opposing military forces?
• What does the acronym ATO stand for in air operations planning?
• ____ air action by aircraft against hostile TGTs that are in CLOSE proximity to FFs and require DETAILED integration of each air msn with fire/movement of forces
• MQ-9 KB holding: groups 4/5 require how many keypads and what area?
• In Level 1, aircrew use LOS imagery to determine damage probability. Which imagery is used at this stage?
• During a CAS 9-line, the location of friendlies will be given by which reference?
• Who has authority to control the maneuver of ground forces and grant target engagement authority?
• If a target is unknown and not expected to be present in the operational environment, to which category does it belong?
• Which term describes a target ID identified too late or not selected for deliberate targeting, but upon detection meets objectives and is processed with dynamic targeting?
• Which degraded form of CDM is typically conducted by JTACs, FOs, or aircrews in accordance with authorities established by the CCDR?
• Which CDM level is the weaponeering analysis level that refines weaponeering options?
• Which is the process of attaining an accurate characterization of detected objects in the operational environment sufficient to support an engagement decision?
• SCAR will pass attack briefing to striker in what format?
• Which term refers to an aircrew tasked to perform SCAR missions and to control SCAR activities in the operations area?
• Which term describes a process used to identify protected entities and disseminate information about them?
• What are the three principal risk categories that the CDM helps CCs balance?
• How many levels are there in the CDM?
• Which term describes the process of evaluating detected objects to support an engagement decision?
• Which of the following is NOT a phase of AI mission execution?
• Which LoW principle justifies the use of all measures needed to defeat the enemy as quickly and efficiently as possible that are not prohibited by LoW?
• What term refers to a mission flown in a specific geographic area to locate targets and coordinate or conduct interdiction or reconnaissance on those threats?
• Which role directly commands the five warfare CCs under the CWC?
• Which type of target is exemplified by military leadership and mobile long-range S/A SAMS and is categorized as time-sensitive?
• Which term refers to the airspace coordination concept that allows indirect fires in a target area while keeping aircraft safe?
• Which area is defined as the measurement from the edge of a target or the aimpoint for a point target, used in delineating a hazard zone?
• Which statement best defines the OSC's role?
• Which term is the 10-letter word used to encrypt numerical data such as position time headings?
• In what phase does the crew accomplish 6 Ts (twist, talk, throttle, turn, track, time) as they push down range into enemy territory?
• This brevity term indicates a tgt has been ID'd and meets all req'd ROE guidance aircrew must correlate and perform field CDE (authorized to strike w/field CD assessment)
• Which of the following lists the five fundamental principles of the Law of War?
• Which term describes the aircrew responsible for managing SCAR activities in the operation area?
• Which acronym is used to identify the tactical problem statement, force composition, and COA during mission planning?
• In maritime terminology, what does TOO stand for?
• What term refers to an airborne alert mission for on-call targets that may be retasked during execution for TOOs?
• The JFMCC is down to which command level?
• Which term describes when friendly troops are within weapon impact distance of the target?
• What term describes the process used to ID, analyze, verify, catalog, and disseminate information about entities that are to be protected from negative effects of military operations?
• If required, who develops and approves a PLA plan before CAS employment?
• If the CDE is determined to be low, what action is taken before engaging the target?
• Under the Law of War, which groups receive fundamental protections when they fall into enemy hands (POWs, civilians, and the sick)?
• Which option lists the two types of CAS requests?
• Which term is used to describe an attack or other use of force by a foreign force or terrorist unit, such as missiles or directed energy against US forces?
• What 2 ways does the CSEL transmit?
• Which safeguards friendly forces by including No Fire Area, Restrictive Fire Area, and Restricted Fire Line?
• Which clearance phrase authorizes immediate engagement of the target?
• Which term describes air operations conducted to divert, disrupt, delay, or destroy the enemy's military surface capabilities before they can be brought to bear?
• In a joint targeting framework, which assets are those whose loss would seriously degrade enemy functions and are required by enemy command and control to complete a mission?
• Who is responsible for CID/field CDE for deliberate/on call targets
• Which CAS step communicates limitations or restrictions for the attack?
• Which information is required for CAS planning?
• What is the equivalent to AWACS/CRC in the JFAC AO?
• Which allows indirect fires to occur in a target area while keeping aircraft reasonably safe from those surface fires?
• A prioritized list of targets approved and maintained by the JFC; targets and priorities are derived from the recommendations of components and other appropriate agencies; in conjunction with their proposed operations supporting the joint force commanders objectives and guidance
• Which phase is represented by the end-of-mission return to base and reporting to command and control?
• What format is used by JTAC to pass specifics on target?
• If the loss of an asset would significantly contribute to the success of a friendly component CC's mission, and the asset could be an individual, what term is used to describe the generic target category?
• Which CDM level is the refined analysis level that completes the process of analyzing weaponeering solutions and mitigating collateral damage?
• Fighter KB holding: KB requires what?
• Which option best describes the primary purpose of SCAR missions?
• Which mnemonic is used to assist CAS checks in brief?
• In a military operation, who usually has final authority to authorize weapon use?
• During a TIC, the abbreviated update FAATS stands for which set of elements?
• Which MWAS search pattern is used to search a sector around the aircraft?
• What are the minimum GARS required for KB holding for fighters, bombers, helicopter/C130, and MQ-9?
• What is the term for a physical or virtual object defined by the LoW, noncombatant in nature and protected from effects of military ops under international law and ROEs (e.g., medical facilities, schools, cultural sites)?
• Which maritime mission provides reconnaissance and surveillance to support maritime command and control objectives, crucial for establishing a common operational picture (ISR)?
• Which of the following is one of the four primary AOMSW missions?
• Which term is described as a 10-letter word used exclusively by recovery forces or IP to encrypt numerical data such as position time headings?
• Which CDM level is the general analysis level that begins weaponeering analysis to create desired effects and mitigate collateral damage?
• According to Joint definitions, the On Scene Commander (OSC) is defined as what?
• Before entering SCAR working area, the striker will check in with ___-
• In the egress phase of AI mission execution, which action sequence is described: fence out, pass inflight report, RTB?
• Which clearance call corresponds to type 1 and type 2 control?
• TEFACHR stands for what?
• What are the 3 components of AI route planning and timing
• Which group includes members of armed forces whose duties do not involve fighting and who are immune from attack?
• Which of the following describes the combination used to name the airspace coordination areas?
• Which term is used for an airborne alert mission to detect and retask on-call targets?
• Which term denotes an unintentional or incidental effect on objects that would not be lawful military targets under the circumstances ruling at the time?
• Which term refers to using airborne assets to detect, identify, and engage surface vessels to support surface warfare objectives?
• Which term describes the guidance governing when force may be used and by whom during operations?
• What is the acronym PACE plan stands for in comms failures?
• Which unit conducts reconnaissance and provides situation updates to AR/AI assets and C2?
• What term denotes the asset or agency assigned responsibility to deconflict aircraft and airspace within a kill box?
• Which process is used to characterize detected objects to support an engagement decision?
• What term describes targets that have both military and civilian purposes or functions?
• In which phase do you complete fence check, weapons checks, aircraft holding, airspace clearance, situation update?
• In major combat operations, which term best describes the arrangement where each command cell directs combat power toward enemy forces near adjacent units?
• What factors would cause an aircraft to divert?
• Which term refers to a protected object that is noncombatant in nature and protected under international law and ROEs?
• Which term describes a measure that restricts fires and includes no-fire area, restricted fire area, and restricted fire line?
• Which CAS step follows the Attack and involves evaluating effects?
• High Value Individual is the term used when a High Payoff Target is an individual.
• CDE for dynamic targets is determined by which arrangement?
• Which LoW principle states even where one is justified in acting, one must not act in a way that is unreasonable or excessive?
• Which term denotes reasonable certainty that an object is a legitimate military target in accordance with theater ROE, defined as an identification derived from observation and analysis of target characteristics?
• Which of the following lists are common challenges/pitfalls?
• Do you repeat a cleared hot or cleared to engage call?
• Which term describes the incidental effect on objects that would not be lawful military targets?
• Which mission corresponds to the abbreviation WAS?
• Helo/C130 KB holding: KB requires how many keypads and what dimension?
• Which CDE is used for all emerging targets (non ATO assigned DMPIs/dynamic targets)?
• MWAS scan type used to survey a broad area at a selected range and bearing from the aircraft is which?
• ACA stands for which term in airspace management?
• In the egress phase crews must report mission information to the appropriate C2 using what format?
• Who are persons placed around or within a valid military target to hinder attack, including those who place themselves in or near the line of fire to disrupt it?
• Bomber KB holding: KB requires how many quads and what dimension?
• Which CSAR/PR MSN checklist is listed in the available options?
• How is a target passed to assets for engagement?
• What is one of the main purposes of the Law of War?
• In this context, what does the term 'Kill box' describe?
• What is the predesignated specific location relative to which IP provide their position to recovery forces covertly?
• Which brevity call indicates enemy activity below the pre-briefed risk?
• What is employed to facilitate efficient use of airspace to accomplish the mission and simultaneously provide safeguards for friendly forces?
• PID stands for which concept in target identification?
• Authority to facilitate interdiction (surface-to-surface and air-to-surface fires) comes from ______.
• Which document provides specific instructions detailing aircraft, weapons, call signs, target description, coordinates, times, and controlling agency, along with general instructions for air operations?
• Which targets are planned via deliberate targeting but are activated when detected using dynamic targeting?
• Who has authority to direct strikers in support of a SCAR mission to proceed against appropriate targets using INVESTIGATE, TARGET, SMACK taskings?
• Which term is defined as a protected object under international law and ROEs, including medical sites, schools, and cultural sites?
• Where can you find JPRC coord info, OSC designation/comms, authentication info, location SARDOT/SARNEG, IP signaling devices, Evasion COAs?
• In CDM Level 1, what do Low and High indicate?
• Which brevity indicates enemy activity above the risk tolerance?
• What term describes a mission with the primary purpose of locating and attacking targets of opportunity (enemy material, personnel, facilities)?
• In what phase will the crew acquire tgt and transition to first run attack from initial point, and conduct BHA/BDA?
• What are the two types of airspace coordination areas?
• Which crown color indicates an amphibious task force?
• Which term describes the threat of imminent use of force by a foreign force or terrorist unit (e.g., planting IEDs with intent to use against US forces)?
• What is the initial analysis stage of the CDM?
• The Kill Box establishing authority for an otherwise unassigned JOA is normally delegated by the JFC to which entity?
• The C2 elements acronym stands for what concept?
• Which maritime operations defend maritime assets from small craft designed to operate in shallow waters, capable of speeds over 30 knots?
• Which term indicates airspace with no restrictions?
• Which brevity call is used to inbound a/c that the LZ has enemy activity above pre briefed risk tolerance?
• Which phase is correctly paired with its typical activity: preparation for attack with checks and clearance, then proceeding to engage?
• Which targets are defined as planned targets for which fires are scheduled at a specific time in the ATO?
• Which MWAS search pattern uses a rolling rectangular pattern to cover an area?
• What is the process by which JTAC coordinates/confirms that the attacking aircraft and/or third party contributor have acquired the correct target or mark?
• Which type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) requires control of individual attacks and visually acquires the attacking aircraft and the target for each attack?
• METT_T includes which factors?
• Which target category comprises known targets that were not planned within the current targeting cycle and may be engaged later?
• What are the two dynamic target types?
• In Linear CAS operations, what describes how each CC directs/sustains combat power toward enemy forces in contact with adjacent units?
• Which brevity means that current survivor coordinates can also refer to additional info followed by a date-time stamp?
• What are the four phases of AI mission execution?
• Which term describes operations conducted to attain maritime superiority by neutralizing threats in the maritime environment?
• When is target correlation complete in a BOC attack?
• ____ are a set of instructions that provide information not in the ATO. May include command guidance, flight scheduling procedures, comm plans, ROEs, PR procedures, code words, PID/CID/CDE procedures, NSL, strike approval authority, and general instructions for intertheater/intratheater ops
• What term refers to a list of protected objects or entities under international law and/or rules of engagement?
• Which statement best contrasts deliberate targeting with dynamic targeting?
• In counterinsurgency operations, forces orient on objectives without geographic reference to adjacent forces. Which concept is described?
• The term used for members of armed forces party to a conflict, excluding certain medical or religious personnel, as well as certain militia or volunteer corps and inhabitants who defend against invaders, is which?
• Who is primarily responsible for PID, while aircrew must ID targets with reasonable certainty vs friendlies and perform field CDE for all assigned taskings?
• Which MWAS search pattern expands outward in a square shape?
• Which term describes air power used at range to divert, disrupt, or delay the enemy's efforts without requiring detailed integration?
• What comes after the Situation Update in the CAS steps?
• Who defines the acceptable risk for MSN success, collateral damage, and friendly fire mitigation procedures?
• The CID process serves to support what type of decision in the overall mission?
• CID will almost always lie with the ______ and its characterizations maybe limited to friendly, neutral, and enemy.
• When en route to the AO, the striker will check in with which element?
• MWAS scan type used to detect moving surface vessels in a particular area or point on the map is which?
• What type of control is used when the JTAC requires clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement, subject to specific attack restrictions?
• What term describes individuals who do not participate in hostilities and are protected from direct attack?
• MWAS has two scan types. Which pair represents the two scan types?
• What is a good memory jogger to use when determining how to assign striker assets?
• Which maritime operation is aimed at locating or attacking targets of opportunity (TOOs) in an assigned area?
• Which term denotes an action to divert, disrupt, distribute, or delay the enemy's military surface capabilities before they can be used effectively?